Delecluse interpretation debate

I would like to hear some opinions from you all. I recently had an audition, and for my concert snare piece I performed an etude out of the Delecluse 'Method for Snare Drum.'

If you are not familiar with this book, The author does not use the now-common method of writing rolls. He instead writes them as trills, and none of them are tied to the next note. In explaining rolls, he defines them as either having an ending note or not having one, but in neither case is the roll tied to an ending note. They simply have a not after the roll or a rest......

After my audition, both judges made a point of noting that I had tied all of my rolls to the next note (when there was one and not a rest), and that there should have been a separation. They made this one of their more important points to mention.

My argument is this: If, on any other instrument, a trill is indicated, is that trill carried, or 'tied,' into the next note? Or does the performer stop the trill just short, leaving a space before attacking the note after the trill, if there is one? I believe that the former is the case. So would the logic not dictate that if a roll is indicated as a trill for snare drum, that the roll be carried, or tied, into the next note, if there is one?

Their argument was this: Unless a note is tied to the next, the roll should be separated from the following note. This line of thinking would imply that every roll in this method book should not be carried through, including rolls beginning at pp and crescendo-ing an accented eighth note at fff. They say that there should be a pause in the roll and then the eighth note should be attacked separately.

I will, of course, admit one thing. Neither of these arguments should be held true for ALL cases. The final deciding factor should be how the roll fits into the context of the music or the ensemble. If the calls for a separation, then so it should be. But in this case, we are talking about an etude in a method book that will be played as a solo. The performer must therefore play what seems more correct musically.....

So let's here some opinions on this situation:

Tie or no tie? You be the judge......

Dan

You lost me at 'etude'. Time to take a pair of 1Bs and hunt down the judges. Signed 'knuckle dragging drummer'

I play classical piano as well as drums and guitar, and I know that in piano you do tie a trill to the next note unless there's a rest. So I'd say that you're correct. (but what do I know, I'm only a drummer)

hope it helps, Matt <>< +?+

i thought trills were tied.(speaking from having played trumpet in high school) I thought the point of a trill was basically similar to a grace note. Quiet, pleasant filler that leads into the next note.